1) Do you any difference between Aristotle's definition of Tragedy and Dryden's definition of play ?
Ans :- Yes , there is a difference between Aristotle's definition of tragedy and Dryden's definition of play.
•Aristotle's definition of tragedy:
" A Just and lively image of human nature,representing its passions and humors and the changes of fortune to which it is subject, for the delight and instruction of Mankind."
So there is a difference in both definition in Dryden's definition he uses the word ' Just ' and ' lively.so both are most important word .
In Aristotle's definition of tragedy it ended with therapeutic word ' catharsis'. Where as Dryden ending his definition with ' delight' and ' instruction of Mankind'. He puts equal emphasis on delight and instruction.
Dryden's definition coming closer to that one of the jobs of poet does is to represent life as it is. Representing its passion and humors and they are not static. They keep on changing so at that sense it is quite significant touch of realism by Dryden.
So these things make difference between Aristotle and Dryden's definition.
So there is a difference in both definition in Dryden's definition he uses the word ' Just ' and ' lively.so both are most important word .
In Aristotle's definition of tragedy it ended with therapeutic word ' catharsis'. Where as Dryden ending his definition with ' delight' and ' instruction of Mankind'. He puts equal emphasis on delight and instruction.
Dryden's definition coming closer to that one of the jobs of poet does is to represent life as it is. Representing its passion and humors and they are not static. They keep on changing so at that sense it is quite significant touch of realism by Dryden.
So these things make difference between Aristotle and Dryden's definition.
2) If you are supposed to give your personal predilection, would you be on the side of the Ancient or the Modern? Please give reasons.
Ans :- I suppose to give my personal predilection, I would like to be on the side of modern, because ancients have followed the rules and disciplines, and moderns have not only followed or imitated them but also have given something new with the help of new inventions in that era like in science and changes in the social world.
3) Do you think that the arguments presented in favor of the French plays and against English plays are appropriate?
Ans :- No I think the arguments presented in favour of the French plays and against English plays are not appropriate. Because French following Ancient rules and regulations. Like they believe that death should be not present on the stage it should only narration. They following time ,place and action. While unity of time suggested that all the action should be portrayed in single day. The setting should be same from begging to end with the same scene .
The English plays have all kind of places , even far off countries ,shown with the single day. The third unity of action requires that the play " aim at one great and complete action" . But English have all kinds of sub- plots .
Ans :- No I think the arguments presented in favour of the French plays and against English plays are not appropriate. Because French following Ancient rules and regulations. Like they believe that death should be not present on the stage it should only narration. They following time ,place and action. While unity of time suggested that all the action should be portrayed in single day. The setting should be same from begging to end with the same scene .
The English plays have all kind of places , even far off countries ,shown with the single day. The third unity of action requires that the play " aim at one great and complete action" . But English have all kinds of sub- plots .
• The French plays may be more regular but they are not lively not so pleasant and delightful as that of English. For example: Shakespeare's plays which are more lively and just image of human nature like Hamlet and Othello.
He also favors English drama and has some critical things to say of french drama :
" Those beauties of the french poesy are such as will raise perfection higher where it is but are not sufficient to give it where it is not: They are indeed the beauties of statue, but not of man".
English plays believe in realistic. and we can see the realistic representation in their play.
4) what would be your preference so far as poetic or prosaic dialogues are concerned in the play?
Ans - I think both are equal important in the play. Prosaic dialogue helps in understanding the play easily but poetic dialogue is like 'sugar courted ornament'. Which added sweetness in the play. It gives pleasure and delight. When we are using only prosaic dialogue it is helps in understanding to the people but some time it felt boring also. So when we use little bit poetic dialogues it gives pleasure and delight.When we use only poetic dialogues it become sometimes difficult to understand.
So mixture of both dialogue makes play understandable and also gives pleasure and delight to readers.
So mixture of both dialogue makes play understandable and also gives pleasure and delight to readers.
Thank You....
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